Jewjitzu
Well-known member
Is Mary's blood tainted?
Joseph is Jesus' daddy. Spirit doesn't have blood, Mat 16:17. Jesus said so.
November 25, 2023
- Thread starter Dant01
- Start date
Joseph is Jesus' daddy. Spirit doesn't have blood, Mat 16:17. Jesus said so.
SPOKENWORD
Well-known member
Joseph was Jesus care taker. He never had sex with Mary until after Jesus birth. Its called the immaculate conception.. Your understanding is flawed.Is Mary's blood tainted?
Joseph is Jesus' daddy. Spirit doesn't have blood, Mat 16:17. Jesus said so.
Jewjitzu
Well-known member
Immaculate conception refers to Mary herself being conceived without sin. That's Catholic Doctrine. Mary is clearly a sinner bringing sacrifices after Jesus' birth. And in that thinking, sin was passed on in the blood.Joseph was Jesus care taker. He never had sex with Mary until after Jesus birth. Its called the immaculate conception.. Your understanding is flawed.
Open Heart
Well-known member
The Immaculate Conception is a Catholic doctrine that states Mary was conceived without original sin. It has nothing to do with Jesus' birth.Joseph was Jesus care taker. He never had sex with Mary until after Jesus birth. Its called the immaculate conception.. Your understanding is flawed.
SPOKENWORD
Well-known member
The virgin birth of Jesus is the Christian doctrine that Jesus was conceived by his mother, Mary, through the power of the Holy Spirit and without sexual intercourse.
SPOKENWORD
Well-known member
Immaculate conception refers to Mary herself being conceived without sin. That's Catholic Doctrine. Mary is clearly a sinner bringing sacrifices after Jesus' birth. And in that thinking, sin was passed on in the blood.
The virgin birth of Jesus is the Christian doctrine that Jesus was conceived by his mother, Mary, through the power of the Holy Spirit and without sexual intercourse.
Open Heart
Well-known member
Yes, this is correct. But the name of this teaching is NOT "the Immaculate Conception."
SPOKENWORD
Well-known member
Its is correct but you do not believe it anymore. What happened?
Jewjitzu
Well-known member
You referred to the Immaculate conception which has nothing to do with Jesus.
Did Mary pass her blood to Jesus? If Joseph isn't the father since he was married at the time to Mary, whose seed was passed on to give Jesus his male genetics?
Dant01
Well-known member
.
● Luke 1:31-33 . . Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you
shall name him Jesus . . and the Lord God will give him the throne of his father
David.
Jesus' genealogy is relatively unimportant to the average Gentile, whereas very
important to Jews because only David's biological posterity qualify to ascend his
throne and govern the people of Israel.
● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it:
"Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"
● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch
David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on
his throne.
● Rom 1:3 . . . His son; descended from David according to the flesh
In other words: baby Jesus was a biological Jew rather than an artificial Jew.
FAQ: From whence did baby Jesus obtain a Y chromosome for his male gender?
REPLY: In the beginning, Eve's entire body-- inside and out, front to back, top to
bottom, and side to side --was constructed with material taken from Adam's body.
(Gen 2:21-22) So if God could construct an entire woman from material taken from
a man's body, then it shouldn't be too difficult for Him to construct a teensy little
chromosome from a woman's body.
Seeing as how Eve is the mother of all women (Gen 3:20 & Acts 17:26) then any
material taken from Mary's body to construct a Y chromosome for baby Jesus would
be owed to Eve's body; and by construction: to Adam's body.
The beauty of it is that a Y chromosome constructed with material taken from
Mary's body wouldn't be an alien substance created ex nihilo; but would be 100%
natural, and easily traceable all the way back to Eve, and from thence to the very
dust that was used to construct Adam's body.
I sincerely believe that what I suggest herein actually took place when the power of
the Most High overshadowed Jesus' mom per Luke 1:35; and if my suggestion is
true, then little Jesus was thoroughly a Jew-- biologically descended not only from
David and Abraham as all other Jews, but also from the Man that God created in
the book of Genesis.
● Heb 2:17 . . He had to be made like his brethren in every way.
FAQ: You say Jesus was David's biological descendant. How is that possible if he
had God's blood in his flesh.
REPLY: According to Lev 17:11, the life of the flesh is in the blood. Well then, in
order for Jesus to be David's bona fides biological posterity, he had to have human
blood in his flesh due to the fact that his biological ancestor David was human. In
point of fact, according to Acts 17:16, all truly human men descend from one and
the same human ancestor.
One of the oldest creeds in the book states that Jesus is fully God and fully Man.
Well that creed would be grossly mistaken if something other than Adam's life was
in Jesus' blood. Plus: on numerous occasions Jesus referred to himself as "son of Man"
which, likewise, would be patently false were Adam's life not in his blood.
_
● Luke 1:31-33 . . Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you
shall name him Jesus . . and the Lord God will give him the throne of his father
David.
Jesus' genealogy is relatively unimportant to the average Gentile, whereas very
important to Jews because only David's biological posterity qualify to ascend his
throne and govern the people of Israel.
● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn from it:
"Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"
● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch
David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on
his throne.
● Rom 1:3 . . . His son; descended from David according to the flesh
In other words: baby Jesus was a biological Jew rather than an artificial Jew.
FAQ: From whence did baby Jesus obtain a Y chromosome for his male gender?
REPLY: In the beginning, Eve's entire body-- inside and out, front to back, top to
bottom, and side to side --was constructed with material taken from Adam's body.
(Gen 2:21-22) So if God could construct an entire woman from material taken from
a man's body, then it shouldn't be too difficult for Him to construct a teensy little
chromosome from a woman's body.
Seeing as how Eve is the mother of all women (Gen 3:20 & Acts 17:26) then any
material taken from Mary's body to construct a Y chromosome for baby Jesus would
be owed to Eve's body; and by construction: to Adam's body.
The beauty of it is that a Y chromosome constructed with material taken from
Mary's body wouldn't be an alien substance created ex nihilo; but would be 100%
natural, and easily traceable all the way back to Eve, and from thence to the very
dust that was used to construct Adam's body.
I sincerely believe that what I suggest herein actually took place when the power of
the Most High overshadowed Jesus' mom per Luke 1:35; and if my suggestion is
true, then little Jesus was thoroughly a Jew-- biologically descended not only from
David and Abraham as all other Jews, but also from the Man that God created in
the book of Genesis.
● Heb 2:17 . . He had to be made like his brethren in every way.
FAQ: You say Jesus was David's biological descendant. How is that possible if he
had God's blood in his flesh.
REPLY: According to Lev 17:11, the life of the flesh is in the blood. Well then, in
order for Jesus to be David's bona fides biological posterity, he had to have human
blood in his flesh due to the fact that his biological ancestor David was human. In
point of fact, according to Acts 17:16, all truly human men descend from one and
the same human ancestor.
One of the oldest creeds in the book states that Jesus is fully God and fully Man.
Well that creed would be grossly mistaken if something other than Adam's life was
in Jesus' blood. Plus: on numerous occasions Jesus referred to himself as "son of Man"
which, likewise, would be patently false were Adam's life not in his blood.
_
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Jewjitzu
Well-known member
And this has nothing to do with Yom Kippur.
If Joseph isn't the father, since he was married to Mary, then you have a mamzer.
Dant01
Well-known member
.
Joseph had no part in Jesus' conception. (Matt 1:18-19 & Luke 1:31-35)
Even so; Mary's boy is positioned in Joseph's genealogy. (Matt 1:1-17)
It's sometimes assumed Jesus was Joseph's foster child. But foster kids have no
place in a man's family tree. Seeing as how Jesus wasn't Joseph's biological
progeny, then the only way he could be legally placed in Joseph's genealogy was by
adoption, and it came about like this:
Joseph was instructed give Mary's baby the name Jesus. (Matt 1:21)
Joseph complied. (Matt 1:25 & Luke 2:21)
In ancient Israel, when a man stood with a woman to name her child, it became
officially his. So from then on the neighbors, and Jesus' mom, knew the lad as
Joseph's son. (Luke 2:27-28, Luke 2:41, Luke 2:48, & Luke 4:22)
FAQ: Why make an issue out of Jesus' association with Joseph?
REPLY: Because Jesus was ordained of God to inherit David's throne. (Luke 1:32-33)
For one thing is: David's throne never passes down to his posterity via women; it
always passes down via the men in his line, viz: Mary was able to give her son a
biological connection to David, but she couldn't give him the throne.
For another thing; the throne has to come down via David's son Solomon. (1Kings
1:13 & 1Chron 22:9-10) Joseph is related to Solomon. (Matt 1:6 and Matt 1:16)
Long story short: it was necessary for Joseph to adopt Mary's boy in order to place
the lad in Solomon's genealogy and thus validate him as a rightful heir to the
throne.
FAQ: Since when did the Jews begin placing men in positions of power by adoption?
REPLY: Jacob was the first. He divided the tribe of Joseph in two, and set Manasseh
and Ephraim over them as tribal heads equal in position to Jacob's eldest sons
Reuben and Simeon. (Gen 48:5-6)
_
Joseph had no part in Jesus' conception. (Matt 1:18-19 & Luke 1:31-35)
Even so; Mary's boy is positioned in Joseph's genealogy. (Matt 1:1-17)
It's sometimes assumed Jesus was Joseph's foster child. But foster kids have no
place in a man's family tree. Seeing as how Jesus wasn't Joseph's biological
progeny, then the only way he could be legally placed in Joseph's genealogy was by
adoption, and it came about like this:
Joseph was instructed give Mary's baby the name Jesus. (Matt 1:21)
Joseph complied. (Matt 1:25 & Luke 2:21)
In ancient Israel, when a man stood with a woman to name her child, it became
officially his. So from then on the neighbors, and Jesus' mom, knew the lad as
Joseph's son. (Luke 2:27-28, Luke 2:41, Luke 2:48, & Luke 4:22)
FAQ: Why make an issue out of Jesus' association with Joseph?
REPLY: Because Jesus was ordained of God to inherit David's throne. (Luke 1:32-33)
For one thing is: David's throne never passes down to his posterity via women; it
always passes down via the men in his line, viz: Mary was able to give her son a
biological connection to David, but she couldn't give him the throne.
For another thing; the throne has to come down via David's son Solomon. (1Kings
1:13 & 1Chron 22:9-10) Joseph is related to Solomon. (Matt 1:6 and Matt 1:16)
Long story short: it was necessary for Joseph to adopt Mary's boy in order to place
the lad in Solomon's genealogy and thus validate him as a rightful heir to the
throne.
FAQ: Since when did the Jews begin placing men in positions of power by adoption?
REPLY: Jacob was the first. He divided the tribe of Joseph in two, and set Manasseh
and Ephraim over them as tribal heads equal in position to Jacob's eldest sons
Reuben and Simeon. (Gen 48:5-6)
_
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Jewjitzu
Well-known member
You have a mamzer.
Because he was the father. God isn't mentioned as the father in the genealogies.
Actually, Messiah descends from Abraham and David's loins, and not via adoption, Gen 15:4-5.
4Then the word of the LORD came to Abram, saying, “This one will not be your heir, but one who comes from your own body will be your heir.” 5And the LORD took him outside and said, “Now look to the heavens and count the stars, if you are able.” Then He told him, “So shall your offspring be.”
You see, Eliezer, Abraham's servant wanted to be his heir. He couldn't be.
Rotfl...
Create a new OP and we can discuss what you want.
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Open Heart
Well-known member
Welcome to the Judaism forum. Did you have any questions about Judaism, or ideas related to Judaism?
Yahchristian
Well-known member
True. And there is absolutely no Biblical basis for Mary's "immaculate conception".
@SPOKENWORD do YOU agree with the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception?
Open Heart
Well-known member
Try to remember that Catholics are not sola scriptura like protestants. They believe in the authority of the church, which of course includes the bible but is not limited to it.
Dant01
Well-known member
.
It's believed by a pretty large percentage of modern Christians that the so-called
fallen nature is propagated by fathers. Oh? From whence did Eve get it?
She was already alive and fully constructed with material taken from Adam's body
prior to the forbidden fruit incident. Since himself tasted the fruit after his wife was
already in existence; then it was impossible for Adam to pass the fallen nature to
her by means of reproduction.
In the past, I was sure that the chemistry of the forbidden fruit had something to
do with the first couple's altered moral perception; but now I seriously doubt it
because Eve was the first to eat the fruit, and when she did, nothing happened. She
remained just as shameless in the buff as before. It wasn't till Adam tasted the fruit
that she began to feel exposed; so I'm pretty sure that the underlying cause is far
more serious than the chemistry of that fruit.
FAQ: If Eve's fallen condition wasn't due to the fruit, nor due to Adam's body, then
what did it?
REPLY: Well; obviously the Serpent did it to them, a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2)
He has the power of death (Heb 2:14) and the ability to tamper with the human
body and the human mind in ways not easily detected; e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5
and Eph 2:2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield his power the moment that
Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it takes effect.
Not long after Adam tasted the fruit, he and his wife both immediately set to work
cobbling together some rudimentary aprons to cover their pelvic areas.
FAQ: Why wasn't the woman effected by the Serpent's power when she tasted the
forbidden fruit?
REPLY: It was apparently God's decision that if sin and death were to come into the
world, they would come via a lone male's actions just as life and righteousness
would come into the world via a lone male's actions. (Rom 5:12-21)
FAQ: When does the Serpent go to work on people. . . in the womb or out of the
womb?
REPLY: Adam and his wife demonstrate that it can be done on adults, but I'm
guessing that for most of us it's in the womb; and if not in the womb, then certainly
no later than when we're born. (Ps 51:5 & Ps 58:3)
So then: even if Joseph had fathered baby Jesus, the child wouldn't have
necessarily been born with the so-called fallen nature because it's not passed on by
one's father nor one's mother. It's obtained from humanity's covert parent: the
Devil-- ergo: protecting baby Jesus from the so-called fallen nature was just a
simple matter of keeping the Devil's paws off him.
FAQ: No fair! Why are the rest of us allowed to be tampered by the Devil and not
him?
REPLY: Jesus is God's lamb of choice to atone for the sins of the world. He had to
be shielded from the Devil's work in order to succeed.
● 1Pet 1:18-20 . .You know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or
gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from
your forefathers, but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or
defect. He was chosen before the creation of the world.
_
It's believed by a pretty large percentage of modern Christians that the so-called
fallen nature is propagated by fathers. Oh? From whence did Eve get it?
She was already alive and fully constructed with material taken from Adam's body
prior to the forbidden fruit incident. Since himself tasted the fruit after his wife was
already in existence; then it was impossible for Adam to pass the fallen nature to
her by means of reproduction.
In the past, I was sure that the chemistry of the forbidden fruit had something to
do with the first couple's altered moral perception; but now I seriously doubt it
because Eve was the first to eat the fruit, and when she did, nothing happened. She
remained just as shameless in the buff as before. It wasn't till Adam tasted the fruit
that she began to feel exposed; so I'm pretty sure that the underlying cause is far
more serious than the chemistry of that fruit.
FAQ: If Eve's fallen condition wasn't due to the fruit, nor due to Adam's body, then
what did it?
REPLY: Well; obviously the Serpent did it to them, a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2)
He has the power of death (Heb 2:14) and the ability to tamper with the human
body and the human mind in ways not easily detected; e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5
and Eph 2:2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield his power the moment that
Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it takes effect.
Not long after Adam tasted the fruit, he and his wife both immediately set to work
cobbling together some rudimentary aprons to cover their pelvic areas.
FAQ: Why wasn't the woman effected by the Serpent's power when she tasted the
forbidden fruit?
REPLY: It was apparently God's decision that if sin and death were to come into the
world, they would come via a lone male's actions just as life and righteousness
would come into the world via a lone male's actions. (Rom 5:12-21)
FAQ: When does the Serpent go to work on people. . . in the womb or out of the
womb?
REPLY: Adam and his wife demonstrate that it can be done on adults, but I'm
guessing that for most of us it's in the womb; and if not in the womb, then certainly
no later than when we're born. (Ps 51:5 & Ps 58:3)
So then: even if Joseph had fathered baby Jesus, the child wouldn't have
necessarily been born with the so-called fallen nature because it's not passed on by
one's father nor one's mother. It's obtained from humanity's covert parent: the
Devil-- ergo: protecting baby Jesus from the so-called fallen nature was just a
simple matter of keeping the Devil's paws off him.
FAQ: No fair! Why are the rest of us allowed to be tampered by the Devil and not
him?
REPLY: Jesus is God's lamb of choice to atone for the sins of the world. He had to
be shielded from the Devil's work in order to succeed.
● 1Pet 1:18-20 . .You know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or
gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from
your forefathers, but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or
defect. He was chosen before the creation of the world.
_
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Open Heart
Well-known member
Welcome to the Judaism forum. Did you have a subject related to Judaism, or a question about Judaism?
SPOKENWORD
Well-known member
I believe Mary was impregnated by the Holy Spirit and that she had other children after the birth of Jesus..
Yodas_Prodigy
Well-known member
My bet is that SW did not know this doctrine and he assumed it was meant to represent Jesus. I just learned this about 10 or so years back. I'm a Christ follower for 36 years+ now.