Matt. 26:28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
"Many"?
Why not, "all", if God "died for all"?
Wouldn't "all" be far less ambiguous?
You are aware the word many does not contradict the word all
It is clear Christ died for more than the Calvinist elect
Heb 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Is 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; We have turned every one to his own way; And the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
Jn 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
2 Co 5:14–15
14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:
15 And
that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
Jn 11:51
And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;
1 Jn 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for
the sins of the whole world.
Luke 1:77 to give knowledge of salvation to his people in the forgiveness of their sins,
Why just "his people", and not, "everyone"?
Are you going to claim people other than Jews are not instructed regarding salvation
Acts 5:31 God exalted him at his right hand as Leader and Savior, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins.
Hmmm.... That's very specific, isn't it?
Your point?
Are you claiming only Jews are granted repentance
Acts 10:43 To him all the prophets bear witness that everyone who believes in him receives forgiveness of sins through his name.”
Now, "everyone who believes" constitutes a specific group, ie. "believers", and excludes a defined other group, namely "unbelievers". While I understand that many (sincerely) believe that "everyone has the ability to believe", that simply isn't Biblical.
You have done nothing at all to prove that claim
Scripture seems to indicate otherwise
John 20:31 (NASB 2020) — 31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that by believing you may have life in His name.
John 1:6–7 (NASB 2020) — 6 A man came, one sent from God, and his name was John.
7 He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him.
Romans 10:8–17 (NASB 2020) — 8 But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart”—that is, the word of faith which we are preaching,
9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;
10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.
11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes in Him will not be Put to shame.”
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;
13 for “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”
14 How then are they to call on Him in whom they have not believed? How are they to believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how are they to hear without a preacher?
15 But how are they to preach unless they are sent? Just as it is written: “How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news of good things!”
16 However, they did not all heed the good news; for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?”
17 So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ.
