The Blind Leading the Blind - Matthew 16:18

dingoling.

Well-known member
WHAT!!!!
will any Catholic correct ding??

Are you really aligning themselves with God-denying atheists?
Truth is the issue. What is the truth? There are errors in scripture. There are times it contradicts itself. It has nothing to do with the atheists.
 
He hung himself:
and when the rope broke he fell and burst



"Given these facts, it is clear that the gospels are actually in complete harmony on this matter. One author might have known more names than another. One author may have had a specific reason for emphasizing one particular woman over the others. These are issues of mere specificity. The fact of the matter is that there is no conflict between these verses at all. They are all communicating the same thing! Far from an example of a contradiction, this is actually a minor example of the gospels reporting the same event in slightly different ways without any disagreement at all."

This is the sad state of Catholic apologetics;
trying to prove Scripture is in error; while claiming their Church is error-free.
If the 4 Gospels had agreed on every little detail, then people would be screaming, "Collusion!"

I remember reading about this. The 4 Gospel witnesses are like several people who all witnessed the same thing and are telling others of what they saw. One person provides one detail, another provides another detail. The witnesses provide the same information on some details, but different details about other parts of what they saw. But when taken all together, the details all the eye witnesses gave show a complete picture.

Simple.
 
No, there are not. By whose authority do you make that declaration?

The contradiction is in your faulty understanding of Scripture. But by what or whose authority do you declare this?
Here is another error.

I Kings 6:1, "In the four hundred and eigthtieth year after the Israelites came out of the land of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel....

There are nCCs who have added up the years from when the Israelites left Egypt to the fourth year of Solomon's reign and it is more than 480 years.
 
Here is another error.

I Kings 6:1, "In the four hundred and eigthtieth year after the Israelites came out of the land of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel....

The are nCCs who have added up the years from when the Israelites left Egypt to the fourth year of Solomon's reign and it is more than 480 years.
keep digging that hole
and if you are right:
then I can question the "correctness" of any verse in Scripture

including your beloved verses in James and your go-to Prime Minister verse
 
Not digging a hole. The truth is what matters.

I am not going to mold the facts to fit my beliefs, but rather mold to my beliefs to fit the facts.

The question should be how many years was it from when the Israelites left Egypt to the 4th year of Solomon's reign?
enjoy:
 
Yes that is what that passage says, but Christians have checked that number by adding the years up from the time the Jews spent in the wilderness, the period of conquest under Joshua, the time of the Judges and the time of Saul and David. Those years add up to more than 480 years.
 
Yes that is what that passage says, but Christians have checked that number by adding the years up from the time the Jews spent in the wilderness, the period of conquest under Joshua, the time of the Judges and the time of Saul and David. Those years add up to more than 480 years.
your own USCCB sees it as a figurative number for a dozen generations (12ish x 40ish)
not as an exact chronological measurement
(as that is often the case with numbers in Scripture (ex: 7 times 70 means very complete)
Catholics don't take the 1000 years in the Revelation as an exact literal chronological measurement
 
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Note to all posters--please take discussion of possible Biblical errors to the Bible questions board, where I have moved a number of posts about that subject. This board is for the discussion of Catholicism. Please stick to the board's purpose. Thank you.
 
No, there are not. By whose authority do you make that declaration?
By the authority of Tischendorf, Alford, Wescott and Hort &etc, and many other textual critics - the text found in bibles based on the KJV (textus receptus) is not the same as that found in the ancient 4th century codices, Codex Vaticanus, and Codex Sinaiticus, etc.

For instance, the Johannine Comma, as found in 1 John 5:7,8 in the KJV and in the Catholic Douay-Rheims bible, is missing in the 4th century codices, as is the ending of Mark's gospel, as is also the Periscope Adulterae (John 7:53–8:11). Many other variations occur.

Perhaps it would be more appropriate to say there are errors in "our scriptures." No-one ever ruled the English scriptures to be infallible (except KJV-only-ists). Infallibility could only be attributed to the original words written down in the original languages, as it is impossible to make an "infallible" translation of anything as complex as the bible - even if we had the original documents, which we don't.
 
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I know about textual variations, and the Comma, and prefer the more ancient manuscript copies over the Textus Receptus. However, God's word is infallible, but human interpretations are not always correct, especially if the interpreter has a low regard for Scripture.
 
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