When did this making occur????
The fact that Peter is correct, and Jesus was made lord is sufficient to put to rest the OP claims. It doesn't matter when, it only matters that it happened.
When did this making occur????
Yes, it says "this man truly is the savior of the world".
What it doesn't say, and what is central to your doctrine, is that this is "God".
God here is the savior of Jacob (not the world). Did you even read the passage? The woman and those with her were Samaritans.
I suppose if you didn't bother to read the passages you quoted.
So the Father is not Lord then, correct?
Yes, but there is not claim that God is the savior of "all the flesh" in the passage. In the passage, God claims to be somebody's savior, but it isn't the "savior of the world" as you claimed.Your post makes little sense.
The verse said "all the flesh should know"...all the flesh is all the world.
????? Makes no sense.Perhaps you should read the whole chapter, rather than rip a phrase out of context. Just a few verses earlier he says:
17 Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
[
God ALONE is The Savior of the world.Yes, it says "this man truly is the savior of the world".
What it doesn't say, and what is central to your doctrine, is that this is "God".
God here is the savior of Jacob (not the world). Did you even read the passage? The woman and those with her were Samaritans.
I suppose if you didn't bother to read the passages you quoted.
And You should read the whole Bible.Perhaps you should read the whole chapter, rather than rip a phrase out of context. Just a few verses earlier he says:
17 Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
[
Yes, I know that you can't understand the clear declaration by Jesus Christ himself that he has a god, and that god is the same god the apostles have.????? Makes no sense.
And You should read the whole Bible.
Heb 1:8 The Father say’s His Son is God.
I see. Your doctrine requires that your god to be completely incapable of delegating tasks to anybody else. Your god has to do it all by himself. I'm not sure that telling the actual god how to do things is a good idea.God ALONE is The Savior of the world.
I suppose if you are going to make things up, go big or go home.
Jesus isn't called "God of gods" anywhere in the bible, it only exists in your commentaries and your fantasies.
Perhaps you should read the whole chapter, rather than rip a phrase out of context. Just a few verses earlier he says:
17 Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
As inconsistencies go, your perception that I have an inconsistency is small potatoes compared to your idea that the one god isn't the father, despite the passage directly saying he is, but rather, this other person in the passage is the one god, despite the passage not saying that he is.Seems a little inconsistent to me that you want to use the "one God" against Jesus but not the "one Lord" against the Father.
Your throne, O God: This makes it plain that the Father calls the Son God. When the First Person of the Trinity spoke to the Second Person of the Trinity, He called Him God. This is unique and powerful evidence of the deity of Jesus.The father isn't speaking in Hebrews 1:8. Did you even read the passage? It is a quotation of a psalm. Check out who is speaking in the psalm before you answer.
Your throne, O God: This makes it plain that the Father calls the Son God. When the First Person of the Trinity spoke to the Second Person of the Trinity, He called Him God. This is unique and powerful evidence of the deity of Jesus.
Jesus is the True and Living God, called so here by God the Father, and also by John in John 1:1, by Thomas in John 20:28, and by Paul in Titus 2:13 and Titus 3:4.
I cited a lexicons and dictionary, not a commentary.
You don't like how the words of the Bibe are properly defined because they refute your heresy.
See post 20.I was unaware that https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/hdg/1-corinthians-12.html was a dictionary and or a lexicon, or the various threads you created were lexicons.
The one dictionary/lexicon link you cited doesn't even use the words "god of gods" as it relates to Jesus.
Jesus Christ
See post 20.
Here's some help:Post 20 links to a thread you started, not to a lexicon. So in short, I saw it.