Two problems (or perhaps many more):
1) For the Trinity, you DEMAND that we show you the EXACT word, "Trinity" in the Bible.
No I don't. What I ask is for anyone to show where the concept of God being a Trinity is taught in the Bible. Where is God ever described as a Trinity, three in one, three persons of the same essence, or anything similar? Jesus Christ said he was a man (John 8:40), Peter said he was a man (Acts 2:22), Paul said he was a man (Rom 5:15; 1 Tim 2:5) and more. Jesus also said his Father is "the only true God" (John 17:3), that he was sent BY God and that he learned FROM God. Paul said that "for us there is but one God, the Father (1 Cor 8:6).
But the Trinity is not the topic of this forum.
But for YOUR claim, "salvation is AVAILABLE", you no longer demand "exact words", you let yourself off with a FAR easier standard than you demand of others. So why the blatant hypocrisy?
Since I do not demand and have never demanded "exact words," your assertion is false.
2) My issue with your claim initially was not your errant belief in universal atonement,
Another false assertion. I do not believe in universal atonement. Not everyone will be saved, but it's not because God does not want everyone to be saved. He gave people free will. Many people choose to reject the gospel.
but the fact that you demoted salvation to mere "availability".
Another false assertion. I have never "demoted salvation to mere 'availability.'"
Christ said He came TO SAVE "his people". He didn't say He came to make salvation merely "available", and to "everyone".
See John 3:16. Also 1 Tim 2:4; 2 Pet 3:9; etc..
That is two major ways in which you have grossly disrespected MY Lord by twisting His words and His message.
I have not twisted any of Jesus' or the Bible's words.
3) You are ASSUMING that "all men" means "every single individual".
Yes. That's what it says.
Given God's previous preference and limitation of salvation to only the Jews,
Non-Jews could be saved too.
it seems more accurate to understand "all men" not as "every single individual", but as the inclusion of all people groups (Jews, Assyrians, Babylonians, Greeks, Egyptians, Samaritans, etc.), although not necessarily all "individuals" in each of those groups.
That's how Calvinists have to interpret that verse. I disagree with that interpretation.
4) If "all men" truly means, "every single individual" (which I'm pretty sure it doesn't),
You're saying "pretty sure" now. That's a change..
then you make God a LIAR, since He said that ALL MEN (or according to you, "every single individual") WILL be saved.
Where does God say that all men will be saved? He doesn't.
Since that hasn't happened, that makes God a liar.
It hasn't happened and it won't happen. Again, where did God say all men will be saved?
5) If God TRULY willed/wanted all "individuals" to be saved, then all individuals WOULD be saved.
No they wouldn't. God gave people free will. The ability to choose. Many people reject God.
That they are not is a denial of God's omnipotence, as you must be saying that God wasn't "able" to accomplish His will.
Again, you do not understand, or refuse to accept, that God gave people free will.
(And this is where the bait-and-switch comes it, because the proponents of this view then CHANGE from "God wants all men to be saved", to "God wants all believers to be saved", which is NOT the same thing. Nice bait-and-switch.)
That's the Calvinist interpretation, not mine. You apply the same thinking to 2 Peter 3:9, asserting it means that God is not willing that any BELIEVER should perish.
That wasn't the issue.
Or to quote Sheldon Cooper, "My objection was based on factors other than difficulty."
The issue is that your proof-texts don't say what you claim they do.
You are simply rationalizing and twisting and changing Scripture to make it FIT what you WANT it to say.
I assert that is exactly what Calvinists are doing. They change "all" in 1 Tim 2:4 to not mean "all," "any" in 2 Peter 3:9 to mean "any believer," etc.
Great.
Now let's discuss what Paul meant by "all men". A cursory read of verse 1 shows that he is referring to CLASSES of men, not "individuals".
Again, that HAS to be the Calvinist interpretation of that verse.
Why did you neglect to quote v.8, which shows that the context is not "everyone", but is referring ONLY TO A SPECIFIC GROIUP.
And did you not see the word, 'us-ward", which likewise limits the scope?
People who are already saved do not need to worry about perishing, and they have already come to repentance. The "any" in 2 Pet 3:9 refers to anyone, people who have not come to repentance.
Who is the "you" here?
How do you get from "you" to "everyone"?
God set before Israel "life and death, blessing and cursing," and told them to choose. Do you believe that the Israelites had free will, the ability to choose, but we don't?
Again, one wonders why you constantly IGNORE THE CONTEXT?
Actually, truth be told, I don't "wonder" at all. I know why. You need to ignore it, because the context refutes your misinterpretation.
Are you going to explain how you think the context affects what Eze 33:11 is saying?
Are you claiming that everyone is part of the "house of Israel"?
Egyptians are Jews?
Babylonians are Jews?
Gentiles are Jews?
No. Again, are you claiming the Jews had the free-will ability to to turn from their evil ways, but nobody else does?