John 5:19 - Is Jesus limited to what the Father does?

Jesus has no authority to interpret teh Law.
Of course he does. He is the word.

Jesus was given authority over all mankind.
He was also given the authority to grant eternal life to all who were his. Jehovah gifted him with a flock.

Jesus was a Rabbi and a teacher: Mark 9:5, Mark 14:45, John 1:38, John 20:16.

You should really read John 17.

Okay, this is your que to quickly change the subject.
 
Exacly reason for Christ. God is Spirit. Human being physical and Spiritual can commune with God through Christ (within) Who can be physical and and Spirit. Only through Christ man can commune with God, works both directions.
We commune with God directly.
 
Of course he does. He is the word.

Jesus was given authority over all mankind.
He was also given the authority to grant eternal life to all who were his. Jehovah gifted him with a flock.

Jesus was a Rabbi and a teacher: Mark 9:5, Mark 14:45, John 1:38, John 20:16.

You should really read John 17.

Okay, this is your que to quickly change the subject.
I've read it all, studied it in depth. And I'm convinced that the gospels are not only historically unreliable, but they are certainly not the word of God.
 
Because you said Jesus has no authority to interpret Law. I gave you several good reasons why he does. You basically just reply with, "Nuh uh."
Jesus was a Rabbi among his Jewish peers.
Christ Jesus interpreted the Law correctly, he did that from a higher level, i.e. not just a Book regulation but a part of human consciousness, desired by God result.
 
Because you said Jesus has no authority to interpret Law. I gave you several good reasons why he does. You basically just reply with, "Nuh uh."
Jesus was a Rabbi among his Jewish peers.
No, there is no record of Jesus ever receiving smikha (leaning of hands). So your claim that he was a rabbi has no foundation.
 
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