Brother, you can read so you know the passages from the writings of the Apostle Paul and John both clearly state that God's grace has been given to all people.
Sure, He gives to all the grace of rain and to all the grace of fruitful seasons as a witness (acts 14:17), but that is not the grace that saves. It can't be, because by definition, the grace that saves, saves, but not all are saved.
Where does scripture say He gives to everyone the grace that saves ?
So are you saying when God purposely and explicitly gave His Son for the sins of the whole world, tasting death/dying for everyone, that is not God's saving grace for salvation? The Lord and His Apostles say differently, not me. You seem to pass it off as common grace such as rain. Perhaps I am taking your comment wrong.
Here are the translations of Robert Young, the YLT translation, and Jay P Green, the LITV translation. Both are known for accuracy to the original text and meaning.
"For the saving grace of God was manifested to all men" (YLT)
"For the saving grace of God has appeared to all men" (LITV)
Whether or not you accept it does not change the fact that God's saving grace has been manifested/appeared to all men. The translation of the ESV, KJV, GNB, NKJV, NIV, NET, NASB, and etc all say the same thing, that God;s grace for salvation has appeared/manifested to all men.
There is zero doubt to the meaning of the text. How we handle it is the question.
God's saving grace has appeared/manifested to all men. I believe the testimony of God on this one. Do you?
You seem to think there is another grace besides God's giving of His Son. Perhaps you can provide scriptural evidence for such.
And I agree all men are not saved, for not all men who hear believe the Good News.
I explained that in the same paragraph: "As Jesus told Nicodemus, some people love the darkness/sin and refuse to come into the light/repent and believe and be reconciled to God."
I certainly cannot say it any better than the Lord did, "Now this is the basis for judging: that the light has come into the world and people loved the darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. For everyone who does evil deeds hates the light and does not come to the light, so that their deeds will not be exposed. But the one who practices the truth comes to the light, so that it may be plainly evident that his deeds have been done in God." (Joh 3:19-21)
The reason why men don't believe is because they love sin. It doesn't get any easier than that. The fault of their damnation is not upon God for not showing them saving grace for we know that He has. The fault of anyone's damnation is their love for sin instead of doing what God wants.
But it is not that God did not, and does not show them grace to believe,
Again, by definition, "Grace to believe," results in belief. God did not give grace to believe to all men, else all men would believe.
Perhaps you could share the passages of the bible that refer to the special "Grace to believe" that is with held from men else they would believe.
FYI - Many of the Jewish people were hardened because they were stiff necked, unholy, and resisted the Holy Spirit. They had the true revelation of God and refused to love and worship God. There is no special grace, only one grace and that is God's When one resists God and refuses to leave the love of sin for Him, rest assured He will leave that one to his demise.
The whole world is given salvation because God said so, not me.
That's universalism. God does not give salvation to everyone. He offers it, but He doesn't give it to everyone?
Yes, I agree. I was hurried and missed it in my proof reading.
Salvation from God is genuinely offered to everyone with the intent that they believe and be saved.
God bless